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Cấu trúc đề thi chứng chỉ tiếng anh B1
B1 READING [ĐỌC – HIỂU]
Phần đọc dưới dạng câu trả lời trắc nghiệm, nội dung thi tiếng anh B1 reading bao gồm 4 bài thi sau:
10 câu ở phần này sẽ cho 10 câu độc lập bỏ trống trong mỗi từ trong một câu, và cho sẵn 4 đáp án A,B,C,D thí sinh dựa trên các kiến thức từ vựng, ngữ pháp… để chọn đáp án đúng. Mỗi đáp án đúng sẽ được 1 điểm.
Ở phần này thí sinh đọc hiểu với bài đọc dài hơn để chọn đáp án trắc nghiệm cho sẵn.
Thí sinh được đọc bài với độ dài khoảng 150 từ với 10 chỗ trống thí sinh được yêu cầu chọn 10 trong số 15 từ đã có để điền vào chỗ trống sao cho đúng.
B1 WRITING [VIẾT] Phần 1: Viết lại câu: 5 – 10 điểm
Viết lại 5 câu sao cho nghĩa của câu không thay đổi bằng các gợi ý đã cho sẵn.
Phần 2: Viết đoạn văn: 20 điểm
Viết bài văn có độ dài từ 100 đến 120 từ với các chủ để yêu cầu được đưa ra ví dụ như viết đơn xin việc, viết lá thư mời hay phàn nàn về các dịch vụ mà bàn trải qua và cảm thấy không hài lòng về nó, viết thư trả lời với mục đích xin lỗi, cảm ơn, giải thích một sự việc hay dặn dò, đưa lời khuyên; viết một câu chuyện đã có sẵn câu mở đầu và câu kết thúc…
B1 LISTENING [NGHE – HIỂU] Phần 1: 5 câu hỏi – 10 điểm
Thí sinh được nghe 5 đoạn hội thoại ngắn để chọn 5 bức tranh hình ảnh đúng.
Phần 2: 10 câu hỏi – 10 điểm
Thí sinh có thể nghe một đoạn hội thoại hoặc độc thoại để điền thông tin đúng vào chỗ trống.
Phần 1: Giới thiệu bản thân khả năng giao tiếp xã hội của thí sinh.
Thang điểm bài thi chứng chỉ tiếng Anh B1 là 100 điểm. Kết quả bài thi trả về đạt hoặc không đạt. Thí sinh đạt khi đạt tổng điểm tất cả bài thi từ 50/100 điểm. Riêng phần nghe và nói thí sinh phải đạt được 6 điểm trở lên để tránh điểm liệt.
Để luyện đề thi thử B1 đạt hiệu quả cao nhất, bạn nên tham khảo một số kinh nghiệm luyện thi được Edulife tổng hợp như sau:
Cải thiện vốn từ vựng
Vốn từ vựng phong phú sẽ là lợi thế lớn trong các kỳ thi đánh giá năng lực ngoại ngữ. Bạn có thể tích lũy từ vựng qua rất nhiều các tài liệu. Tuy nhiên mẹo học từ vựng hiệu quả nhất là bạn nên làm nhiều đề luyện thi, sách luyện ngữ pháp tiếng anh B1 uy tín. Để ý đến những từ xuất hiện lặp đi lặp lại nhiều lần qua các đề. Đó chính là những từ vựng cơ bản của bài thi B1 tiếng anh. Sắm ngay một cuốn sổ và ghi lại những từ này cả về dịch nghĩa lẫn cách đọc. Nếu lần sau gặp lại từ này mà bạn vẫn không nhớ thì lại ghi chép lại thêm 1 lần nữa và cứ làm liên tục nếu bạn chưa nhớ.
Phương pháp này khá mất công nhưng bạn hãy yên tâm về hiệu quả vì bạn có thể nhớ rất sâu vựng, rất thuận lợi nếu về sau khi làm bài nói và viết. Cách học như vậy có tính thực tế và bài bản hơn nếu so sánh với việc học qua kênh phim ảnh hay âm nhạc… Bạn cần học để lấy chứng chỉ trong 3-6 tháng thì không nên quá ôm đồm mà nên có phương pháp luyện từ vựng trọng tâm.
- Luyện viết mỗi ngày song song với việc học từ vựng.
- Nắm vững các cấu trúc cơ bản, thông dụng đồng thời áp dụng từ mới học ngày để tập viết thành câu thành đoạn hoàn chỉnh.
- Diễn đạt các câu bằng nhiều cách khác nhau.
- Lập dàn ý chi tiết để đảm bảo đúng ý, lưu loát trong nội dung viết.
- Đọc rà soát lại lỗi sau khi viết.
- Viết bài ngắn và đơn giản trước, khi thành thục mới viết những bài dài và khó hơn.
Sau khi hoàn thành mỗi bài luyện viết, bạn nên gửi bài cho những người có chuyên môn, thầy cô giáo, bạn bè, một số hội nhóm hỗ trợ học tiếng anh… để được chỉnh sửa, phát hiện lỗi sai. Không nên viết xong rồi để đó vì bạn sẽ khó có thể phát hiện được lỗi do mình tự viết ra.
Nâng cao khả năng nghe
Bạn cần luyện nghe mỗi ngày để tạo nên những phản xạ tự nhiên. Những lúc rảnh rỗi trong ngày bạn cần lựa chọn những video, audio, clip, bản nhạc hay những bản tin để luyện nghe. Một số lưu ý để bạn làm phần nghe được tốt hơn:
- Hãy nghe câu hỏi nhiều lần, tìm các từ khóa chính.
- Nhìn kỹ bức tranh, tìm điểm khác biệt.
- Trước khi nghe hãy lướt qua phần điền từ, xác định chỗ trống cần điền là loại từ nào danh từ, động từ, tính từ hay giới từ…
- Là con số, hay ngày tháng năm sinh…
Bài nghe hoàn toàn không khó như bạn tưởng. Chỉ cần bạn luyện từ vựng tốt và làm quen được với giọng Anh chuẩn trong băng đề thi là có thể dễ dàng vượt qua bài nghe của B1.
Bạn cần lưu ý trong quá trình luyện đề thi thử là hãy đặt bút làm nghiêm túc, bấm thời gian làm bài như một đề thi thật. Điều này sẽ giúp các bạn dễ dàng đánh giá chính xác trình độ của mình. Sau đó hãy nhờ thầy cô đánh giá để rút kinh nghiệm cho lần luyện đề kế tiếp.
Download đề thi B1 anh văn có đáp án
Luyện đề thi chứng chỉ tiếng Anh B1 tại Edulife
Với 10 năm kinh nghiệm luyện thi chứng chỉ tiếng anh, Edulife đã chiếm trọn niềm tin của hàng nghìn học viên trong quá trình luyện thi. Edulife hợp tác với các trường đại học được Bộ GD&ĐT cấp phép và đội ngũ giảng viên dày dặn kinh nghiệm luyện thi B1, mang lại cho học viên chất lượng đào tạo tốt nhất.
Một số phản hồi của học viên tại Edulife:
“Bộ đề thi chứng chỉ tiếng anh B1 thi thử tại Edulife luôn được cập nhật, bám sát nội dung, cấu trúc đề thi thật theo mẫu 2022. Do đó đã giúp mình học tập tự tin để bước vào kỳ thi đánh giá năng lực thật sự. Và kết quả là mình đã đạt 60/100 điểm. Cảm ơn Edulife nhất là cô Doãn Thị Mai lớp luyện thi B1 rất nhiều ạ” Huỳnh Như – Nam Định.
Bạn có thể tìm hiểu thêm về lớp học chứng chỉ tiếng anh B1 để hiểu thêm về chương trình đào tạo tại Edulife.
Thông qua bài viết này các bạn đã có thể tìm hiểu những đề thi tiếng Anh B1 và phương pháp luyện đề hiệu quả. Mọi chi tiết quý học viên vui lòng liên hệ với Edulife:
Văn phòng tuyển sinh Edulife
Địa chỉ: Số 17, ngõ 167 Tây Sơn, Quang Trung, Đống Đa, Hà Nội
Hotline: 096 999 8170
Website: edulife.com.vn
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ĐỀ THI MẪU CHỨNG CHỈ B1, B2, C1 TIẾNG ANH THEO ĐỊNH DẠNG VSTEP.
Trước khi đọc bài này bạn phải chắc chắn hiểu được VSTEP là gì, và chứng chỉ VSTEP dành cho ai, Vstep có thời hạn bao lâu ở.
Những điều cần biết về chứng chỉ Vstep tiếng Anh B1,B2,C1
File pdf: //plus.google.com/u/1/110340615729403842449/posts/DAiWxwrgciK
File nghe – đáp án: //plus.google.com/u/1/110340615729403842449/posts/YUixy1YLc9c
PHẦN 1: NGHE HIỂU – 40 PHÚT PHẦN 2: ĐỌC HIỂU – 60 PHÚT PHẦN 3: VIẾT – 60 PHÚT PHẦN 4: NÓI – 12 PHÚT Thời gian: Khoảng 40 phút Số câu hỏi: 35
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1-Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Now, let’s listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question. 1. How many languages are taught at Hanoi International Language School?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2. What is the boarding time of Flight VN178?
A. 3.30
B. 3.45
C. 4.15
D. 4.45
3. What will be happening in Lecture hall 4 next Monday?
A. An art workshop
B. An art exhibition
C. A history lesson
D. A talk about history of art
4. Where does the woman live?
A. Opposite the cinema
B. Next to Anna Boutique
C. On Floor 1 of C5 building
D. On Floor 3 of C5 building
5. What is the woman doing?
A. Introducing the sports centre
B. Selling equipment to the new members
C. Explaining the rules in the centre
D. Answering members’ questions
6. What time do the banks open in winter?
A. 8.00 a.m.
B. 8.30 a.m.
C. 9.00 a.m.
D. 9.30 a.m.
7. What is the woman talking about?
A. How to change the topic of a term paper
B. When and where to hand in a term paper
C. How to write a term paper
D. The list of topics for a term paper
8. How is the weather today?
A. Cool all day
B. Rainy in the early morning
C. Windy at noon
D. Sunny during the day
PART 2-Questions 9-20 In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Questions 9 to 12. Listen to the discussion between two exchange students Martha and Peter. 9. How has the man mainly learnt Japanese?
A. By listening
B. By speaking
C. By writing Kanji
D. By reading aloud
10. Why did the woman travel to Spain?
A. To reach her goal
B. To learn Japanese
C. To meet her pen friends
D. To practice her Spanish
11. According to the woman, why do young people learn language more quickly?
A. They have friends at university.
B. Their brains are fresher.
C. They do not have much concern other than study.
D. They find languages easier than the elder.
12. What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Learning English
B. Learning languages
C. Learning French
D. Age and learning
Questions 13 to 16. Listen to the conversation between Emma, the tourist and Felipe, a local person from Ecuador.
13. What does the man say about the Galapagos Islands?
A. They are unattractive.
B. They are a must-visit place for tourists.
C. They are more popular with foreigners than locals.
D. There are a lot of famous hotels and food there.
14. Why are the costs in Galapagos Islands so high?
A. To improve their service quality
B. To protect the environment
C. To attract international tourists
D. To solve local economic problems
15. Which place can be compared to the Galapagos in terms of scenery?
A. The Amazon region
B. The lowlands
C. South Ecuador
D. Ecuadorean countryside
16. What do the speakers mean by mentioning “more rights”?
A. Islanders should have more freedom to do business.
B. Ecuadoreans should visit the island with more ease.
C. Tourists should be given more freedom on the island.
D. Visitors should be encouraged to visit the island.
Questions 17 to 20. Listen to the conversation between Todd and Katia.
17. What is the topic of the conversation?
A. Ways to get an internship
B. Methods of studying at university
C. Contrasts between working and studying
D. Skills needed in working environment
18. What does the girl say about psenting skills?
A. She wanted more practice with them.
B. She was not aware of their importance before working.
C. She didn’t know how to do them in Spanish.
D. She taught them to herself at university.
19. What does the girl think about making mistakes in the working world?
A. It’s frequent and natural.
B. It’s undesirable but normal.
C. It’s worrying and unacceptable.
D. It’s annoying but totally avoidable.
A. Prepare themselves for unexpected situations
B. Relax and have some fun
C. Make good transition from university to work
D. Make their best effort and follow their passion
PART 3-Questions 21-35 In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Questions 21 to 25. Listen to a psentation about summer job searching.
21. What factor deserves initial consideration when a summer job search is launched? A. Sort of jobs within the field
B. Flexible working hours
C. Employees’ hobbies
D. Commitment to the job
22. Why does the speaker mention photography?
A. To highlight the importance of hobbies in job searching
B. To illuminate a job search process
C. To prove the role of local area in job searching
D. To suggest looking for a job on the internet
23. What principle does a person necessarily stick to when looking for the second job? A. Value the second job over the current one
B. Ask for the current employer’s permission
C. Make all the contact out of company time
D. Have interviews scheduled during official working hours
A. Showing up on time
B. Having a great outfit
C. Stressing the achievements with the current company
D. Emphasizing the working experiences
25. What is of greatest importance for a successful attempt at the job search?
A. Asking for references from the current company
B. Referring to what have been achieved in the current job
C. Getting the track record of the current job
Questions 26 to 30. Listen to a talk about recycling carbon.
26. Which process is mainly discussed in the talk?
A. Producing carbon through photosynthesis
B. Returning carbon to the atmosphere through decomposition
C. Recycling carbon into the soil through soil breathing
D. Maintaining the availability of environmental factors
27. What happens during decomposition?
A. Natural elements directly come into the soil when they fall on the ground.
B. Natural nutrients are produced in death leaves and trees.
C. Organic matter is absorbed into the soil through some natural processes.
D. Organic elements are mineralized to CO2.
28. What does “soil respiration” refer to?
A. The cycle of minimalizing CO2 in the soil
B. The stage of decomposing organic matter
C. The circle when CO2 is recycled
D. The process when CO2 gets out of the soil
29. What does the speaker say about the cycle of carbon?
A. It helps remain carbon in litter for a long time.
B. It finishes when CO2 comes out of the soil to the air.
C. It is the result of soil respiration.
D. It creates the amount of carbon in the living biomass.
30. What does the example of tropical rainforest and the Arctic Tundra illustrate?
A. The balance between photosynthesis and decomposition rate
B. The importance of litter and organic matter in the production of carbon
C. The effect of environmental factors on photosynthesis and decomposition rate
D. The way how the nutrient availability stores carbon within the soil
Questions 31 to 35. Listen to a lecture about poor comphenders.
31. What is the talk mainly about?
A. The difficulties poor comphenders encounter
B. The definition of poor comphender
C. The reading process of a poor comphender
D. The causes and effects of poor comphension
32. What can be inferred about poor comphenders’ level of understanding?
A. They are better at decoding than reading a text fluently. B. They are not good at decoding and understanding a text. C. They struggle to reveal what they have read. D. They often have general understanding of the text.
33. What is the speaker’s opinion about exploring poor comphenders?
A. It is challenging in a regular classroom context.
B. It is best to work with one child at a time.
C. It requires children to make some questions about the text.
D. It is done by asking children to talk about the text in pairs.
34. What does the speaker say about poor comphenders at primary school age?
A. They make up the majority of primary students.
B. They perform badly in subjects that require higher cognitive levels.
C. Oral tasks are more difficult for them to achieve than reading ones.
D. They have greater receptive skills than productive ones.
35. What is meant about poor comphenders’ ability to look over their comphension?
A. They actually know reasons for their poor comphension.
B. They can monitor their comphension only occasionally.
C. They change their monitoring process when their comphension has broken down. D. Controlling comphension is beyond their ability.
This is the end of the listening paper. Now you have 05 MINUTES to transfer your answers to your answer sheet. Thời gian: 60 phút Số câu hỏi: 40
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
Example
Read the following passage:
FALL WEATHER
One of the first things we look for in fall is the first frost and freeze of the season, killing or sending into dormancy the beautiful vegetation you admired all summer long. For some locations along the Canadian border, and in the higher terrain of the West, the first freeze typically arrives by the middle part of September. Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until November, though a frost is very possible before then. A few cities in the Lower 48, including International Falls, Minnesota and Grand Forks, North Dakota, have recorded a freeze in every month of the year.
0. When does the first freeze often arrive in the South?
A. Early September
B. Mid September
C. November
D. Before November
You will read in the passage that “Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until November”, so the correct answer is option C. November. PASSAGE 1- Questions 1-10 Ever wondered what it feels like to have a different job? Here, four people with very different careers reveal the trade secrets of their working day. Luc
My day typically starts with a business person going to the airport, and nearly always ends with a drunk. I don’t mind drunk people. Sometimes I think they’re the better version of themselves: more relaxed, happier, honest. Only once have I feared for my life. A guy ran out at a traffic light and so I sped up before his brother could run, too. He seemed embarrassed and made me drop him at a car park. When we arrived, the first guy was waiting with a boulder, which went through the windscreen, narrowly missing my head. But the worst people are the ones who call me “Driver!”
Harry
I not only provide appearance for my client, I also do damage control. We’ve had clients involved in lawsuits, porces or drugs. One mistakenly took a gun to an airport. On the red carpet – at the Academy Awards or the Golden Globes – I’m the person making my client look good. The other day at an Oprah Winfrey event, the carpet wasn’t put down properly and my clients almost went flying – I had to catch them. They can make some strange requests, too. At a black-tie gala at the White House, two clients hated the dinner and insisted that we circle around Washington DC to find a KFC open at 1a.m. I had to go in wearing a gown and order so they could eat it in the car.
Jennifer
I could teach you to do a basic brain operation in two weeks. But what takes time and experience is doing it without wrecking the brain of the patients – learning your limitations takes years.
I ended up working as a pediatric neurosurgeon because children make better recoveries from brain damage than adults. So it’s more rewarding in terms of outcome and I find their resilience really inspiring. It’s taken me a decade to become comfortable discussing an operation with children, but they have to be able to ask questions. You have to show them respect. Sometimes their perspective is funny; most teenage girls just want to know how much hair you’ll shave off.
I don’t get upset by my job. These children are dying when they come in and I do whatever I can to make them better.
1. In the first paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence ‘ My day typically starts with a business person going to the airport, and nearly always ends with a drunk’?
A. Normally, I will take a business person and a drunk at the airport.
B. Normally, I will go to the airport in the morning and come back with a drunk.
C. Normally, my first passenger will be a businessman and my last one a drunk.
D. Normally, I will drive a businessman to the airport and come back almost drunk.
2. What does Harry probably do for a living?
A. A tour guide
B. An agent
C. A lawyer
D. A driver
3. The word ‘ circle’ in line 17 could be best replaced by
A. drive
B. look
C. walk
D. ride
4. In lines 23-24, what does Jennifer mean when she says, ‘ Learning your limitations takes years’?
It takes a person a long time to
A. control his weakness in a brain operation.
B. understand what he cannot help.
C. perform even a basic operation.
D. be able to perform a brain surgery.
5. The word ‘ their ‘ in line 25 refers to
A. patients’
B. neurosurgeons’
C. children’s
D. adults’
6. The word ‘ perspective’ in line 28 is closest in meaning to
A. question
B. worry
C. view
D. prospective
7. According to the passage, whose job involves in a large part listening to others?
A. Luc’s
B. Harry’s
C. Jennifer’s
D. Solange’s
8. According to the passage, who is likely to meet different types of people every day?
A. Luc
B. Harry
C. Jennifer
D. Solange
9. The word ‘ones’ in line 34 refers to
A. judges
B. barristers
D. defendants
10. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To inform people of what to expect in those jobs.
B. To report what different people do and think about their jobs.
C. To raise awareness of the importance of different jobs.
PASSAGE 2- Questions 11-20
Spring is the season when newly minted college graduates flock to New York City to start their careers. They begin the search for their dream apartment, brokers say, with the same singleminded determination that earned them their degrees and landed them their jobs in the first place. But that determination only goes so far when it comes to Manhattan real estate.
Mr. Hunt said that when he shows prospective renters what their budget really can buy, they are sometimes so appalled that “they think I’m trying to fool them or something, and they run away and I don’t hear from them again.”
Alternatively, the renter checks his or her expectations and grudgingly decides to raise the price limit, or look in other neighborhoods or get a roommate. “When expectations are very high, the process can be very frustrating,” Mr. Hunt said.
The thousands of new graduates who will be driving the engine of the city’s rental market from now until September will quickly learn that renting in New York is not like renting anywhere else. To start with, landlords want only tenants who earn at least 40 times the monthly rent, which means an $80,000 annual salary for a $2,000 apartment. According to census data, more than 25,000 graduates aged 22 to 28 moved to the city in 2006, and their median salary was about $35,600.
Those who don’t make 40 times their monthly rent need a guarantor, usually a parent, who must make at least 80 times the monthly rent. In addition to a security deposit, some landlords also want the first and last month’s rent. Tack on a broker’s fee and a prospective renter for that $2,000 apartment is out of pocket nearly $10,000 just to get the keys to the place.
11. Which of the following would be the best title for this article?
A. Best Guide to Finding an Apartment in New York City
B. New York City – Haven for First-time Renters
C. Surprises Await First-time Renters in New York City
D. Sure You Can Afford it in New York City?
12. On average, how much do tenants have to pay for a studio in New York City?
A. About $2,000
B. More than $2,000
C. More than $3,100
D. Less than $3,500
13. Which of the following words can best replace the word ‘prospective’ in line 12?
A. Apparent
B. Prosperous
C. Potential
D. Upcoming
14. Which of the following is NOT listed by Mr. Hunt as a reaction of prospective renters when he informs them of the prices?
A. They think the broker is meaning to deceive them.
B. They decide to move to another city.
C. They decide to look for a place in a different neighborhood.
D. They find someone to share the accommodation with.
15. According to Mr. Hunt, what would make the process of finding an apartment challenging?
A. Renters do not trust the brokers.
B. Renters over-expect about places they can rent.
C. Landlords expect tenants to have secured income.
D. Renters want to bargain with landlords.
16. Which of the following would best describe the attitude of renters who decide to raise their price limit after being informed of the price?
A. Willing
B. Hopeful
C. Reluctant
D. Frustrated
17. In which space [marked A, B, C and D in the passage] will the following sentence fit? Aside from the realities of price and space, the requirements set by New York landlords are also bound to help turn a bright-eyed first-time renter’s outlook grim. A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
18. Why did the writer mention the income of college graduates in 2006?
A. To demonstrate that graduates can earn a decent salary if they work in New York City
B. To indicate that less than 50% of the surveyed graduates could afford apartments in New York City
C. To suggest that New York City is not a place for graduates
D. To prove that to guarantee a place in New York City is financially out of reach for an average graduate
19. What does the word ‘Those’ in line 28 refer to?
A. Landlords
B. Graduates
C. Guarantors
D. Parents
20. Which of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph?
A. On top of that, every owner also has their own requirements, so just because you qualified here doesn’t mean you’ll qualify there.
B. So you had better accept that you’ll never have what you want no matter how hard you work.
C. So the key to finding that first apartment is to learn as much as possible about the market before arriving in the city and to keep an open mind.
D. You have to be flexible and you have to come to the city armed with information and financial paperwork.
PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30
‘Ladies and gentlemen’, the captain’s voice crackled over the plane’s public address system. “If you look out of the window on the right side of the aircraft,” he said, “you will have a clear view of Greenland. In my 15 years of flying, I have not seen a scene like this.” I opened the window shade, and I understood what had so startled the pilot. Instead of the habitual snowy landscape and frozen glaciers, a wide swathe of black water was visible as it flowed into the Atlantic. It was late spring, but the giant icebox that is Greenland was already melting.
The fleeting image that I saw from 30,000 feet in early May is consistent with massive amounts of climate data gathered from across the planet. It is now clear that on average, the global surface temperature has increased by about one degree Celsius since 1900 and has been the cause of extreme climate events across the planet.
At times, warming climate combined with soot in the air thrown by wild fire has accelerated the melting. Warm weather is leading ice sheets to break up and turning glaciers into flowing streams. In May, NASA scientists concluded that the rapidly melting glacial region of Antarctica has passed “the point of no return”, threatening to increase sea levels by as much as 13 feet within the next few centuries. A The fact that the melting is taking place slowly and its effect may not be felt for a few decades seems to offer comfort to those who want to continue their lifestyle relying on fossil fuels. Unwilling to believe in global warming or make the sacrifices needed to face the challenge, politicians have been finding excuses to do nothing. B
American President Barack Obama, not hobbled by the need to fight elections, has now broken ranks with such politicians. Unable to pass legislation in the face of Republican [and sometimes Democratic] opposition, he instructed the Environmental Protection Agency to announce regulatory policies to curb emissions from power plants in the United States by 30 per cent by 2030. He hopes that regulations would influence the US states to adopt aggressive market interventions to address global warming. Of course, execution of the policy still lies in the hands of many state governors who would find ways to resist, saying that regulations would raise the cost to the economy and cause unemployment among coal workers. As President Obama told Thomas Friedman of the New York Times: “One of the hardest things in politics is getting a democracy to deal with something now where the payoff is long term or the price of inaction is decades away.” C
The price of inaction could be raised – if the coming global summit on climate in Paris could do what other summits have failed to do: agree on a fixed target for greenhouse gas emissions and a rigorous system for monitoring. China has hinted at capping coal burning in the next 15 years, adding weight in favour of action. D Meanwhile, melting in Greenland and the Antarctica will continue as the sun scorches the fields and rising water threatens the coastal areas.
21. In paragraph 1, what does the pilot mean by saying, ‘In my 15 years of flying, I have not seen a scene like this’?
A. This scene is very unusual.
B. The pilot is not an attentive person.
C. The scene makes flying worthy.
D. This scene is very magnificent.
22. What is the author’s purpose when recounting the scene he saw from the plane?
A. To introduce the idea of global warming
B. To give specific detail to support his point that global warming needs public awareness
C. To expss his opinion towards research on global surface temperature
D. To contrast with what the pilot is saying
23. What is ‘offer comfort’ in line 16 closest in meaning to?
A. Warm up
B. Reassure
C. Discourage
D. Assist
24. What is the main idea of paragraph 3?
A. Hot weather combined with wild fire soot has been melting glaciers.
B. There has been enough evidence that global warming is an urgent issue.
C. Global warming is evident but some are not willing to deal with this.
D. The earliest effects of melting glaciers can only been seen in centuries.
25. Who does ‘such politicians’ in line 20 refer to?
A. Those who have protested against Obama’s views.
B. Those who are not at the same rank as Obama.
C. Those who take no actions against global warming.
D. Those who do not believe in global warming.
26. In which space [marked A, B, C and D in the passage] will the following sentence fit? India, the world’s third largest user of coal, may have to take measures on its own or face isolation.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
27. According to paragraph 4, the author’s attitude toward Obama’s actions can be best described as
A. skeptical
B. appciative
C. sympathetic
D. supportive
28. What can the word ‘ scorches ‘ in line 35 be best replaced by?
A. shines
B. warms up
C. burns
D. heats up
29. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author in this passage?
A. skeptical
B. concerned
C. indifferent
D. pessimistic
30. Which of the following could best describe the message that the author wants to pass to readers?
A. Fossil fuel should be replaced in the future.
B. Solutions to global warming need political support.
C. Rapid glacial melt has reached an irreversible point.
D. Politicians play a key role in resolving global issues.
PASSAGE 4 – QUESTIONS 31 – 40
The earliest evidence for life on Earth comes from fossilized mats of cyanobacteria called stromatolites in Australia that are about 3.4 billion years old. Ancient as their origins are, these bacteria, which are still around today, are already biologically complex-they have cell walls protecting their protein-producing DNA, so scientists think life must have begun much earlier, perhaps as early as 3.8 billion years ago. But despite knowing approximately when life first appeared on Earth, scientists are still far from answering how it appeared. Today, there are several competing theories for how life arose on Earth. Some question whether life began on Earth at all, asserting instead that it came from a distant world or the heart of a fallen comet or asteroid. Some even say life might have arisen here more than once. Most scientists agree that life went through a period when RNA was the head-honcho molecule, guiding life through its nascent stages. According to this “RNA World” hypothesis, RNA was the crux molecule for primitive life and only took a backseat when DNA and proteins-which perform their jobs much more efficiently than RNA-developed. RNA is very similar to DNA, and today carries out numerous important functions in each of our cells, including acting as a transitional-molecule between DNA and protein synthesis, and functioning as an on-and-off switch for some genes. But the RNA World hypothesis doesn’t explain how RNA itself first arose. Like DNA, RNA is a complex molecule made of repeating units of thousands of smaller molecules called nucleotides that link together in very specific, patterned ways. While there are scientists who think RNA could have arisen spontaneously on early Earth, others say the odds of such a thing happening are astronomical. “The appearance of such a molecule, given the way chemistry functions, is incredibly improbable. It would be a once-in-a-universe long shot,” said Robert Shapiro, a chemist at New York University. “To adopt this, you have to believe we were incredibly lucky.” But “astronomical” is a relative term. In his book, The God Delusion, biologist Richard Dawkins entertains another possibility, inspired by work in astronomy and physics. Suppose, Dawkins says, the universe contains a billion planets, a conservative estimate, he says, then the chances that life will arise on one of them is not really so remarkable. Furthermore, if, as some physicists say, our universe is just one of many, and each universe contained a billion planets, then it’s nearly a certainty that life will arise on at least one of them. Shapiro doesn’t think it’s necessary to invoke multiple universes or life-laden comets crashing into ancient Earth. Instead, he thinks life started with molecules that were smaller and less complex than RNA, which performed simple chemical reactions that eventually led to a selfsustaining system involving the formation of more complex molecules. “If you fall back to a simpler theory, the odds aren’t astronomical anymore,” Shapiro concluded.
31. The word ‘they ‘ in line 3 refers to
A. mats
B. origins
C. bacteria
D. DNA
32. According to the passage, what is RNA?
A. A protein
B. A molecule
C. A nucleotide
D. A cell
33. The phrase ‘ took a backseat’ in line 12 is closest in meaning to
A. enjoyed more dominance
B. turned to be useless
C. stepped back to its place
D. became less important
34. According to the passage, what is NOT true about RNA?
A. It is the crux of a widely accepted theory on the origin of life.
B. It is believed to be most important for early life.
C. Like DNA, it executes many duties in human cells.
D. There is still disagreement over how RNA first appeared.
35. What does Robert Shapiro mean when he says, ‘ To adopt this, you have to believe we were incredibly lucky ‘?
A. Supporters of RNA world hypothesis must think that humans were extremely blessed.
B. Humans were incredibly lucky because the RNA was the first form of life on Earth.
C. He believes it is near impossible that RNA accidentally arose on Earth.
D. Humans were unlucky because the RNA world hypothesis is highly improbable.
36. Which of the following statements would Dawkins most probably support?
A. As there are a countless number of planets, it is surprising that life arose on Earth only.
B. Life may exist on planets other than Earth and in universes other than ours.
C. There are many universes like ours, which contain an incredible number of planets.
D. Given the colossal number of planets, the appearance of life on one of them was not unusual.
37. According to the passage, which is most likely supported by Robert Shapiro?
A. Life on Earth first came from outer space.
B. It is highly possible that DNA was psent in earliest stages of life.
C. Earliest life might not have arisen in the form of complex molecules.
D. Life has arisen more than once on Earth.
38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a hypothesis of life origin?
A. Life was formed elsewhere and then came to Earth.
B. Life was brought to Earth with crashing comets.
C. RNA played a central role in the early form of life.
D. DNA is more efficient than RNA for primitive life.
39. Which of following conclusions can be drawn from this passage?
A. Among many hypotheses for life origin on Earth, RNA remains the most important one.
B. Many theories of the origin of life have been proposed but no fully accepted theory exists. C. Trying to explain what happened billions of years ago is an extremely difficult but possible task.
D. The answer to the question of how life appeared would have important implications for the likelihood of finding life elsewhere in the universe.
40. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. A general psentation followed by a detailed discussion of both sides of an issue.
B. A list of possible answers to a question followed by a discussion of their strengths and weaknesses.
C. A general statement of an issue followed by a discussion of possible answers. D. A discussion of different aspects wrapped up by an answer to the question.
This is the end of the reading paper. Now please submit your test paper and your answer sheets.
Thời gian: 60 phút Số câu hỏi: 2 TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You received an email from your English friend, Jane. She asked you for some information about one of your friends. Read part of her email below.
I’ve just got an email from your friend, An. She said she’s going to take a course in London this summer. She asked if she could stay with my family until she could find an apartment. Can you tell me a bit about her [things like her personality, hobbies and interests, and her current work or study if possible]? I want to see if she will fit in with my family.
Write an email responding to Jane.
You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name or addresses. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Read the following text from a book about tourism.
Tourism has become one of the fastest growing industries in the world. Millions of people today are travelling farther and farther throughout the year. Some people argue that the development of tourism has had negative effects on local communities; others think that its influences are positive.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effects of tourism on local communities. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
Thời gian: 12 phút Số câu hỏi: 3 Part 1: Social Interaction [3′]
Let’s talk about your free time activities.
– What do you often do in your free time?
– Do you watch TV? If no, why not? If yes, which TV channel do you like best? Why?
– Do you read books? If no, why not? If yes, what kinds of books do you like best? Why?
Let’s talk about your neighborhood.
– Can you tell me something about your neighborhood?
– What do you like most about it?
– Do you plan to live there for a long time? Why/why not?
Part 2: Solution Discussion [4′]
Situation: A group of people is planning a trip from Danang to Hanoi. Three means of transport are suggested: by train, by plane, and by coach. Which means of transport do you think is the best choice?
Part 3: Topic Development [5′]
Topic: Reading habit should be encouraged among teenagers.
Reading
– increases knowledge
– improves memory
– reduces stress
– [your own ideas]
– What is the difference between the kinds of books read by your parents’ generation and those read by your generation?
– Do you think that governments should support free books for all people?
– In what way can parents help children develop their interest in reading?
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